Thomas Aquinas, on Rom 3:27

“Where is then thy boasting? It is excluded. By what law? Of works? No, but by the law of faith.”

“After showing that Jews have no advantage over the gentiles either in regard to sin or to justice, he now presents the intended conclusion, by rejecting the boasts whereby they preferred themselves to the gentiles. He does three things. First, he proposes that this boasting be excluded; second, the reason for this exclusion, at by what law; third, the way it is excluded, at for we account. In regard to the first he does two things. First, he raises a question: inasmuch as you, Jew, are under sin just as the gentile, and the gentile is made just by faith just as you are, where is then your boasting, whereby you take glory in the law, as stated above, and on this ground wish to prefer yourself to the gentile? Your boasting is not good (1 Cor 5:6); let us have no self-conceit, envying one another (Gal 5:26). Second, he answers this, saying, it is excluded, i.e., is taken away: the glory has been taken away from Israel (1 Sam 4:21); I will change their glory into shame (Hos 4:7). Or excluded, i.e., expressly manifested. For the Jews gloried in the glory and worship of the one God, and he says that their glory was excluded, i.e., pressed out by Christ, as artists who press out an image in silver are called excludors, in accord with the Psalm, that they might exclude those who were tried by silver (Ps 67:31). But the first meaning is more literal. Then when he says by what law, he states the cause of this exclusion. Since the Jews' boasting was about the law, as has been stated above, it seemed that their boasting had to be excluded by something of the same genre, i.e., by some law. Therefore, he asks by what is their boasting to be excluded? For someone might suppose that the Apostle means their boasting was excluded by certain legal precepts which commanded greater works. That is why he asks, of works? As if to say: do I say that their boasting has been excluded by some law of works? But he answers: no, but by the law of faith. So it is plain that the Apostle alludes here to two laws, that of works and that of faith. At first glance it would seem that by the law of works is meant the old law and by the law of faith the new law, through which the gentile is made equal to the Jew. But there is some doubt about this distinction. For even in the old law faith was necessary, just as it is in the new: you who fear the Lord believe him (Sir 2:8); I believed; therefore I have spoken (Ps 116:10). And indeed, works are required in the new law, namely, the works of certain sacraments, as commanded in Luke: do this in memory of me (Luke 22:19) and of moral observances: be doers of the word and not hearers only (Jas 1:22). Consequently, it should be said that what he calls the law of works is the law outwardly presented and written, through which men's external works are directed, when it prescribes what he ought to do and forbids what ought to be avoided. But what he calls the law of faith is the law inwardly written, through which are directed not only external works but even the very motions of the heart, among which the act of faith is first: with the heart, we believe unto justice (Rom 10:10). Of this second law he speaks below: the law of the spirit of life in Christ Jesus (Rom 8:2).”

Imported from an open dataset — not yet checked against the printed edition.