Thomas Aquinas, on Rom 3:29

“Is he the God of the Jews only? Is he not also of the Gentiles? Yes, of the Gentiles also.”

“Then when he says or is he the God of the Jews only, he manifests something he had presupposed, namely, that the justice of faith stands in the same common relation to all. He had previously explained this with a reason based on the material cause, when he stated above that all have sinned and need the glory of God (Rom 3:23), i.e., they are sinners, who need to be made just by the grace of God. But a proof based solely on the material cause is not enough, because matter is not moved to a form by itself without an agent cause. Accordingly, he now presents a proof based on the agent cause, i.e., the justifier, who is God: God is he who justifies (Rom 8:33). Now it is manifest that our God by justifying saves those whose God he is, according to a psalm, our God is a God of salvation (Ps 68:20). But he is the God not of the Jews only but of the gentiles also; therefore, he justifies both. On this point he does three things. First, he raises a question concerning the Jews, when he says, is he the God of Jews only? It might seem that he is, because it says in Exodus, the God of the Hebrews called us (Exod 5:3). Hence it must be said that he was the God of the Jews only by the special worship paid to God by them; hence it is stated in a psalm: in Judah God is known (Ps 76:1); yet he was the God of all by his common reign over all things, as is stated in a psalm: God is king of all the earth (Ps 47:8). Second, he raises the question on the side of the gentiles, saying: is he not also of the gentiles? and he answers: yes, of gentiles also, whom he governs and rules: who would not fear you, O king of the nations? (Jer 10:7).”

Imported from an open dataset — not yet checked against the printed edition.