The interpretation timeline
Romans 3:30 Douay-Rheims

For it is one God, that justifieth circumcision by faith, and uncircumcision through faith.

A.D. 202 – 1871 7 witnesses 9 excerpts

Patristic

before A.D. 750
202
A.D.
Irenaeus Patristic
c. A.D. 130–202
“For all things had entered upon a new phase, the Word arranging after a new manner the advent in the flesh, that He might win back to God that human nature (hominem) which had departed from God; and therefore men were taught to worship God after a new fashion, but not another god, because in truth there is but "one God, who justifieth the circumcision by faith, and the uncircumcision through faith."”
Source
“For it was not merely for those who believed on Him in the time of Tiberius Caesar that Christ came, nor did the Father exercise His providence for the men only who are now alive, but for all men altogether, who from the beginning, according to their capacity, in their generation have both feared and loved God, and practised justice and piety towards their neighbours, and have earnestly desired to see Christ, and to hear His voice. Wherefore He shall, at His second coming, first rouse from their sleep all persons of this description, and shall raise them up, as well as the rest who shall be judged, and give them a place in His kingdom. For it is truly "one God who" directed the patriarchs towards His dispensations, and "has justified the circumcision by faith, and the uncircumcision through faith." For as in the first we were prefigured, so, on the other hand, are they represented in us, that is, in the Church, and receive the recompense for those things which they accomplished.”
Source
“Thus then does the Lord plainly show that it was the true Lord and the one God who had been set forth by the law; for Him whom the law proclaimed as God, the same did Christ point out as the Father, whom also it behoves the disciples of Christ alone to serve. By means of the statements of the law, He put our adversary to utter confusion; and the law directs us to praise God the Creator (Demiurgum), and to serve Him alone. Since this is the case, we must not seek for another Father besides Him, or above Him, since there is one God who justifies the circumcision by faith, and the uncircumcision through faith.”
Source
407
A.D.
John Chrysostom Patristic
A.D. 347–407
“"Seeing it is one God." That is, the same is the Master of both these and those. But if you tell me of the ancient state of things, then too the dealings of Providence were shared by both, although in diverse ways. For as to thee was given the written law, so to them was the natural; and they came short in nothing, if, that is, only they were willing, but were even able to surpass thee. And so he proceeds, with an allusion to this very thing, "Who shall justify the circumcision by faith, and the uncircumcision through faith," so reminding them of what he said before about uncircumcision and circumcision, whereby he showed that there was no difference. But if then there was no difference, much less is there any now, And this accordingly he now establishes upon still clearer grounds, and so demonstrates, that either of them stand alike in need of faith.”
Source
430
A.D.
Augustine of Hippo Patristic
A.D. 354–430
“For "it is one God which justifies the circumcision by faith, and the uncircumcision through faith;" in which clauses there is no real difference in the sense, as if the phrase "by faith" meant one thing, and "through faith" another, but only a variety of expression. For in one passage, when speaking of the Gentiles,—that is, of the uncircumcision,—he says, "The Scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the heathen by faith;" and again, in another, when speaking of the circumcision, to which he himself belonged, he says, "We who are Jews by nature, and not sinners of the Gentiles, knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but through faith in Jesus Christ, even we believed in Jesus Christ."”
Source

Scholastic

c. 1100 – 1500
1273
A.D.
Thomas Aquinas Catholic
1225–1274
“After the Apostle has shown that the Jews do not go before the Gentiles, neither with respect to the state of guilt nor with respect to the state of righteousness, here he draws the conclusion he intended, namely by excluding their boasting by which they preferred themselves to the Gentiles. And concerning this he does three things: first he sets forth the exclusion of this boasting; second, the cause of the exclusion, at the words "by what law"; third he shows the manner in which it is excluded, at the words "for we reckon," and so on. Concerning the first he does two things. First he poses the question, saying: since you, O Jew, are commonly under sin just as the Gentile is, and since the Gentile is justified through faith just as you are, where is your boasting? That is, the boasting by which you glory in the law, as was said above, and by which you wish to prefer yourself to the Gentile. 1 Corinthians 5:6: "Your glorying is not good." Galatians 5:26: "Let us not become desirous of vain glory," and so on. Second, he answers this question, saying, "it is excluded," that is, it has been taken away. 1 Kings 4:21: "and the glory is departed from Israel." Hosea 4:7: "I will change their glory into shame." Or "excluded," that is, it has been expressly made manifest. For the Jews used to glory in the glory and worship of the one God, and he says that this glory of theirs has been "excluded," that is, expressed through Christ, just as craftsmen who stamp out some image in silver are called "excluders," according to Psalm 67:31: "that they may exclude those who are tried as silver." But the first sense is the more literal. But when he says "by what law," he shows the cause of this exclusion. But because the boasting of the Jews was in the law, as was said above, it therefore seemed necessary that their boasting should be excluded through something of the same kind, that is, through some law. And therefore, asking by way of inquiry, he adds "by what," namely, has their boasting been excluded? But someone might believe that the Apostle meant that their boasting was excluded through certain legal precepts, by which certain greater works were commanded. And therefore, asking, he adds "of works?" As if he were to say: is it by some law of works that I say their boasting is excluded? And he answers that it is not, but through the law of faith. And thus it is clear that the Apostle here introduces a twofold law, namely of works and of faith. And it seems obvious at first that by the law of works is understood the old law, and by the law of faith the new law, through which the Gentile is made equal to the Jew. But there is doubt about this distinction. For faith was necessary in the old law too, just as in the new. Ecclesiasticus 2:8: "You who fear the Lord, believe him," and Psalm 115:10: "I have believed, therefore have I spoken." Indeed, even in the new law certain deeds are required, both of certain sacraments, according to Luke 22:19: "Do this in memory of me"; and also of moral observances, James 1:22: "Be doers of the word, and not hearers only." It must therefore be said that he calls the law of works the law proposed and written externally, through which the external deeds of men are ordered, in that it is commanded what ought to be done, and through prohibition it is shown from what one ought to abstain. But he calls the law of faith the law written within, through which not only external deeds but also the very movements of hearts are disposed, among which the first is the movement of faith. For "with the heart we believe unto righteousness," as is said here and in chapter 5. And he speaks of this law below, at 8:2: "the law of the spirit of life which is in Christ Jesus." Then, when he says "for we reckon," he shows the manner in which the boasting of the Jews is excluded through the law of faith, saying: for we apostles, taught the truth by Christ, reckon that any man whatsoever, whether Jew or Gentile, is justified through faith. Acts 15:9: "purifying their hearts by faith." And this without the works of the law. And not only without the ceremonial works, which did not confer grace but only signified it, but also without the works of the moral precepts, according to Titus 3:5: "not by the works of righteousness which we have done," and so on. Yet in such a way that this is to be understood as without works that precede righteousness, but not without works that follow upon it, because, as is said in James 2:26: "faith without works," namely, works that follow, "is dead." And therefore it cannot justify. Then, when he says "or is he the God of the Jews," he shows something that he had presupposed, namely, that the righteousness of faith extends commonly to all. And indeed he had earlier made this manifest by an argument taken from the side of the material cause, when he had said above: "all have sinned and need the grace of God," that is, they are sinners who must be justified through the grace of faith. But a proof that rests on the material cause alone does not suffice, because matter is not moved of itself to form without an agent cause. And therefore here he adds an argument taken from the side of the agent cause, that is, of the one who justifies, who is God. Below, 7:33: "God who justifies." But it is manifest that our God, in justifying, saves those whose God he is, according to Psalm 67:21: "Our God is the God of salvation." But he is not the God of the Jews only, but also of the Gentiles; therefore he justifies both. Concerning this, then, he does three things. First he poses the question concerning the Jews, when he says, "is he the God of the Jews only?" This might seem so to someone because of what is said in Exodus 5:3: "The God of the Hebrews has called us." It must therefore be said that he was the God of the Jews only through the special worship shown to God by them, wherefore it is said in Psalm 75:2: "In Judea God is known"; yet he was the God of all through the common governance of all things, according to Psalm 46:8: "God is the king of all the earth." Second, he poses the question on the side of the Gentiles, saying: "is he not also of the Gentiles?" namely, is he God? And he answers, "yes, of the Gentiles also," whom indeed he governs and rules, according to Jeremiah 10:7: "Who shall not fear you, O king of the nations?" Third, at the words "for indeed," he manifests by a sign what he had said, as if he were to say: from this it is manifest that God is not only of the Jews but also of the Gentiles, since indeed it is one God who justifies the circumcision, that is, the Jews, by faith; for as is said in Galatians 5:6: "in Christ Jesus neither circumcision nor uncircumcision." But as to his saying "by faith" and "through faith," according to the Gloss these are entirely the same; nevertheless some difference can be observed. For this preposition "by" [ex] sometimes designates a remote cause; this preposition "through" [per] designates a proximate cause. The Jews, then, are said to be justified "by faith," because faith was the first cause from which circumcision and the other legal sacraments proceeded; and thus faith justifies the Jews as a kind of primary cause acting through certain intermediate causes. But the Gentiles are justified immediately through faith itself. Then, when he says "do we then destroy the law," he excludes a certain objection. For someone might say that he was destroying the aforesaid law, and therefore he asks, saying, "do we then destroy the law through faith," namely from the fact that we say men are justified without the works of the law. And he answers, "God forbid," according to Matthew 5:18: "not one iota, or one tittle shall pass away," and so on. But he adds, "but we establish the law," that is, through faith we perfect and fulfill the law, according to Matthew 5:17: "I have not come to destroy the law, but to fulfill it." And this both with regard to the ceremonial precepts, which, since they were figural, are established and fulfilled by the fact that the truth signified through them is exhibited in the faith of Christ; and also with regard to the moral precepts, because the faith of Christ confers the help of grace for fulfilling the moral precepts of the law, and it also adds certain counsels by which the moral precepts are more safely and firmly kept.”

Post-Reformation

c. 1650 – 1900
1832
A.D.
Adam Clarke Methodist
1762–1832
“Seeing it is one God - επιπερ εις ο θεος. This has been rendered, Seeing God is one. It however makes little difference in the sense: the apostle's meaning most evidently is, it is one and the same God who made both Jews and Gentiles, who shall justify - pardon, the circumcision - the believing Jews, by faith; and the uncircumcision - the believing Gentiles, by the same faith; as there is but one Savior and one atonement provided for the whole. It is fanciful to suppose that the apostle has one meaning when he says, εκ πιστεως, By faith, and a different meaning when he says, δια της πιστεως, Through faith. Both the prepositions are to be understood in precisely the same sense; only the addition of the article της, in the last case, extends and more pointedly ascertains the meaning. It is one and the same God who shall justify the believing Jews by faith; and the believing Gentiles δια της πιστεως, by That Same faith.”
Source
1849
A.D.
1774–1849
“God who justifieth circumcision, and also the uncircumcised by faith; that is, by the faith and religion of the new law, or by a faith working by charity, and joined with good words proceeding from faith. See the Council of Trent, Session 6. cap. viii. “When the apostle says, that a man is justified by faith, and gratis, according to the perpetual consent of the Catholic Church, we are said to be justified by faith, because faith is the beginning and foundation of man’s salvation, and the root of his justification, without which we cannot please God, nor be made his sons; and we are said to be justified gratis, because nothing of those things which go before justification, whether faith or works, are meritorious of the grace of justification.” (Witham)”
Source
1871
A.D.
1871
“it is one God who shall justify--"has unchangeably fixed that He shall justify." the circumcision by--"of" faith, and the uncircumcision through faith--probably this is but a varied statement of the same truth for greater emphasis (see Rom 3:22); though BENGEL thinks that the justification of the Jews, as the born heirs of the promise, may be here purposely said to be "of faith," while that of the Gentiles, previously "strangers to the covenants of promise," may be said to be "through faith," as thus admitted into a new family. Objection:”
Source
Modern · 1953 →

The in-app commentary runs from the Fathers to the early-modern record, then stops — that's where the public-domain sources end, not where the reading does. For the modern reading, follow the sources directly.