The interpretation timeline

1Cor 11:11

How this passage has been read — the sources, oldest to newest.

From the early Church Fathers to now.

2 Patristic · 1 Orthodox · 1 Catholic · 1 Reformed

1Cor 11:11 · Douay-Rheims
“But yet neither is the man without the woman, nor the woman without the man, in the Lord.”
Patristic before A.D. 750
108
A.D.
c. A.D. 50–107
“Be not ashamed of servants, for we possess the same nature in common with them. Do not hold women in abomination, for they have given thee birth, and brought thee up. It is fitting, therefore, to love those that were the authors of our birth (but only in the Lord), inasmuch as a man can produce no children without a woman. It is right, therefore, that we should honour those who have had a part in giving us birth. "Neither is the man without the woman, nor the woman without the man," except in the case of those who were first formed. For the body of Adam was made out of the four elements, and that of Eve out of the side of Adam. And, indeed, the altogether peculiar birth of the Lord was of a virgin alone. [This took place] not as if the lawful union [of man and wife] were abominable, but such a kind of birth was fitting to God. For it became the Creator not to make use of the ordinary method of generation, but of one that was singular and strange, as being the Creator.”
Source
299 years pass — nothing from this stretch is hosted yet
407
A.D.
John Chrysostom Patristic
A.D. 347–407
“"Nevertheless, neither is the man without the woman, nor the woman without the man, in the Lord." Thus, because he had given great superiority to the man, having said that the woman is of him and for him and under him; that he might neither lift up the men more than was due nor depress the women, see how he brings in the correction, saying, "Howbeit neither is the man without the woman, nor the woman without the man, in the Lord." "Examine not, I pray," saith he, "the first things only, and that creation. Since if thou enquire into what comes after, each one of the two is the cause of the other; or rather not even thus each of the other, but God of all." Wherefore he saith, "neither is the man without the woman, nor the woman without the man, in the Lord." "For as the woman is of the man, so is the man also by the woman." He said not, "of the woman," but he repeats the expression, "of the man." For still this particular prerogative remains entire with the man. Yet are not these excellencies the property of the man, but of God. Wherefore also he adds, "but all things of God." If therefore all things belong to God, and he commands these things, do thou obey and gainsay not.”
Source
719 years pass — nothing from this stretch is hosted yet
Scholastic c. 1100 – 1500
1126
A.D.
c. 1055–1107
“However, he says this because he gave more preeminence to the husband, having proved that the wife is from him, and for him, and under his authority. Lest he exalt husbands beyond what is proper, and humiliate wives, he says that in the original creation the wife was indeed made from the husband, but now the husband also is not born without the wife. Nevertheless, "in the Lord," that is, God does all things, and gives life to the seed and strengthens the womb.”
Source
1274
A.D.
Thomas Aquinas Catholic
1225–1274
“Then when he says, Nevertheless, he excludes a doubt which could arise from these statements. For because he had said that man is God's glory and the woman man's glory, someone might believe either that the woman was not from God or that she should not have power in grace. Hence he excludes the first, saying: although the woman is the glory of man, who is the glory of God, nevertheless, neither the man is in the Lord, i.e., produced by the Lord, without the woman nor the woman without the man; Or in another way: neither the man is without the woman in the Lord, namely, in the grace of our Lord Jesus Christ, nor the woman without the man, because both are saved by God's grace, according to Gal (3:27): "For as many of you as were baptized have put on Christ," and then he adds: "There is neither male nor female," namely, differing in the grace of Christ.”
Source
597 years pass — nothing from this stretch is hosted yet
Post-Reformation c. 1650 – 1900
1871
A.D.
1871
“Yet neither sex is insulated and independent of the other in the Christian life [ALFORD]. The one needs the other in the sexual relation; and in respect to Christ ("in the Lord"), the man and the woman together (for neither can be dispensed with) realize the ideal of redeemed humanity represented by the bride, the Church.”
Source
Modern · 1953 →

The in-app commentary runs from the Fathers to the early-modern record, then stops — that's where the public-domain sources end, not where the reading does. For the modern reading, follow the sources directly.