Heb 12:17

“"For ye know" (he says) "how that afterward, when he would have inherited the blessing, he was rejected. For he found no place of repentance, though he sought it carefully with tears." What now is this? Doth he indeed exclude repentance? By no means. But how, you say, was it that "he found no place of repentance"? For if he condemned himself, if he made a great wailing, why did he "find no place of repentance"? Because it was not really a case of repentance. For as the grief of Cain was not of repentance, and the murder proved it; so also in this case, his words were not those of repentance, and the murder afterwards proved it. For even he also in intention slew Jacob. For "The days of mourning for my father," he said, "are at hand; then will I slay my brother Jacob." "Tears" had not power to give him "repentance." And [the Apostle] did not say "by repentance" simply, but even "with tears, he found no place of repentance." Why now? Because he did not repent as he ought, for this is repentance he repented not as it behoved him. For how is it that he [the Apostle] said this? How did he exhort them again after they had become "sluggish"? How, when they were become "lame"? How, when they were "paralyzed"? How, when they were "relaxed"? For this is the beginning of a fall. He seems to me to hint at some fornicators amongst them, but not to wish at that time to correct them: but feigns ignorance that they might correct themselves. For it is right at first indeed to pretend ignorance: but afterwards, when they continue [in sin], then to add reproof also, that so they may not become shameless. Which Moses also did in the case of Zimri and the daughter of Cosbi. "For he found" (he says) "no place of repentance," he found not repentance; or that he sinned beyond repentance. There are then sins beyond repentance. His meaning is, Let us not fall by an incurable fall. So long as it is a matter of lameness, it is easy to become upright: but if we turn out of the way, what will be left? For it is to those who have not yet fallen that he thus discourses, striking them with terror, and says that it is not possible for him who is fallen to obtain consolation; but to those who have fallen, that they may not fall into despair, he says the contrary, speaking thus, "My little children, of whom I travail in birth again, until Christ be formed in you." And again, "Whosoever of you are justified by the Law, are fallen from Grace." Lo! he testifies that they had fallen away. For he that standeth, hearing that it is not possible to obtain pardon after having fallen, will be more zealous, and more cautious about his standing: if however thou use the same violence towards one also who is fallen, he will never rise again. For by what hope will he show forth the change? But he not only wept (you say), but also "sought earnestly." He does not then exclude repentance; but makes them careful not to fall.”

“He was rejected by the words of his father: "Behold, I have made him lord... what then shall I do for you, my son?" (Gen. 27:37). Some, however, explain that he "was rejected" by God. So then, first, he was rejected by God. For God was the cause of the deceived Isaac blessing Jacob. As for the rejection that followed after this, when he sought the blessing, one must think it was on the part of the father, or at one and the same time from both; for it is clear that the father also rejected him by the will of God. "He could not change his father's mind, even though he begged him with tears." So, does Paul deny repentance here? By no means. In what sense, then, does he say, "for he found no place of repentance, though he sought it carefully with tears"? First, understand the word "it" (αὐτήν) not as referring to "repentance," but to the blessing (εὐλογίαν); "for he found no place of repentance" is parenthetical. For is it a matter of repentance to say, "The days of mourning for my father are at hand; then I will slay my brother Jacob" (Gen. 27:41)? Thus, "he found no repentance" because he did not seek it as he ought to have. For even though he wept, it was not with tears of repentance, but of envy and enmity, since he could not bear or accept another's superiority over him, just as Cain's "sorrow" was not the fruit of repentance but of envy, and he became a murderer. So this either has the meaning I have stated, or it means that Paul very wisely frightens those who have not yet fallen, expressing the idea that for great sins there is no place for repentance; he does this with the aim of guarding them from falling through fear. But when he saw that some had fallen, he again exhorts them not to despair, as also in the Epistle to the Galatians: "My little children, of whom I travail in birth again until Christ be formed in you" (Gal. 4:19). Thus, Paul does not deny repentance here, but safeguards believers against falling.”

“693. – Then he shows the punishment which followed when he says, for you know that afterward, when he desired to inherit the blessing, he was rejected. For it says in Genesis (27:30) that after Isaac had blessed Jacob, Esau came and asked for a blessing, which he did not obtain, although his father did it unknowingly, because in that stupor which he experienced, he was in ecstasy and learned from the Holy Spirit that he was not to retract what he had done; hence, he said: 'I have blessed him and he shall be blessed' (Gen. 27:33). Therefore, Esau by the counsel of the Holy Spirit was rejected. This gives us to understand that no one should neglect to do well as long as he lives, no matter how rejected he may be in God's foreknowledge; because after this life no one can obtain God's inheritance, even though it be naturally desired. 694. – For he found no place to repent, though he sought it with tears. For as it is recorded in Genesis (27:34): 'He roared out with a great cry, and being in great consternation, said: Bless me also, my father.' But on the other hand it says in Ezekiel (18:21): 'If the wicked do penance for all his sins, which he has committed, and keep all my commandments and do judgement and justice, living he shall live, and he shall not die.' I answer that as long as one is living in this world, he can do true penance. But sometimes a person repents not from a love of justice, but from the fear of punishment or temporal harm. This is the way Esau repented, not because he had sold his birthright, but for the rejection. Consequently, his penance was not accepted, because it was not genuine. For this is the way the damned in hell repent, as it says in Wisdom (5:3): 'Repenting,' not because they had sinned, but because they have been excluded.”

“afterwards--Greek, "even afterward." He despised his birthright, accordingly also he was despised and rejected when he wished to have the blessing. As in the believer's case, so in the unbeliever's, there is an "afterwards" coming, when the believer shall look on his past griefs, and the unbeliever on his past joys, in a very different light from that in which they were respectively viewed at the time. Compare "Nevertheless afterward," &c. Heb 12:11, with the "afterward" here. when he would--when he wished to have. "He that will not when he may, when he will, shall have nay" (Pro 1:24-30; Luk 13:34-35; Luk 19:42). he was rejected--not as to every blessing, but only that which would have followed the primogeniture. he found no place of repentance--The cause is here put for the effect, "repentance" for the object which Esau aimed at in his so-called repentance, namely, the change of his father's determination to give the chief blessing to Jacob. Had he sought real repentance with tears he would have found it (Mat 7:7). But he did not find it because this was not what he sought. What proves his tears were not those of one seeking true repentance is, immediately after he was foiled in his desire, he resolved to murder Jacob! He shed tears, not for his sin, but for his suffering the penalty of his sin. His were tears of vain regret and remorse, not of repentance. "Before, he might have had the blessing without tears; afterwards, no matter how many tears he shed, he was rejected. Let us use the time" (Luk 18:27)! [BENGEL]. ALFORD explains "repentance" here, a chance, by repenting, to repair (that is, to regain the lost blessing). I agree with him that the translation, instead of "repentance," "no place for changing HIS FATHER'S mind," is forced; though doubtless this is what was the true aim of the "repentance" which he sought. The language is framed to apply to profane despisers who wilfully cast away grace and seek repentance (that is, not real; but escape from the penalty of their sin), but in vain. Compare "afterward," Mat 25:11-12. Tears are no proof of real repentance (Sa1 24:16-17; contrast Psa 56:8). it--the blessing, which was the real object of Esau, though ostensibly seeking "repentance."”