Behold I send my angel, and he shall prepare the way before my face. And presently the Lord, whom you seek, and the angel of the testament, whom you desire, shall come to his temple. Behold he cometh, saith the Lord of hosts.
Augustine of Hippo
"For he whom God has sent speaks the words of God." John said this, of course, about Christ that he might diminish himself from him. Why? Did not God send John himself? And didn't John himself say, "I have been sent before him," and, "He who sent me to baptize with water," and about him it was said, "Behold, I send my messenger before you and he will prepare the way"? Does not he too speak the words of God, about whom it was said that he was more than a prophet? Therefore if God also sent John, and he speaks the words of God, how, in regard to the distinction [between himself and Christ], do we know that he said about Christ, "For he whom God has sent speaks the words of God"?
Imported from an open dataset — not yet checked against the printed edition.