Commentary on Romans (Super Epistolam B. Pauli ad Romanos Lectura)

After the Apostle has shown that Judaism, to which belongs the reception of the law, and circumcision, do not suffice for salvation without the keeping of the law — through which the Gentile, without exterior Judaism and circumcision, obtains the fruit of both — here he raises an objection against what has been said; and first indeed he sets forth the objection, second he resolves it, at the words "much every way."

He objects, therefore, first in this way: if it were so, as has been said, that he is not a true Jew, nor is circumcision true, in what is manifest, but in the hidden part of the heart, what advantage then has the Jew? That is, what more has been given to him than to the rest? It seems that nothing has. And this is unfitting, since the Lord said, Deuteronomy 7:6: "The Lord your God has chosen you, that you should be a peculiar people to him." Or what is the profit of circumcision, namely the exterior kind? It seems from what has gone before that there is none, which is unfitting, since it was handed down by God, who says, Isaiah 48:17: "I am the Lord who teaches you profitable things."

Then, when he says "much every way," he resolves the aforesaid objection. And first as to the prerogative of Judaism, second as to the profit of circumcision, in chapter 4, at the words "What shall we say then?" Concerning the first he does two things. First he shows the prerogative of the Jews; second he excludes their boasting, by which they proudly preferred themselves to the Gentiles, at the words "What then? Do we excel?" Concerning the first he does three things. First he sets forth what he intends; second he makes it clear, at the words "first indeed"; third he excludes an objection, at the words "for what if some."

He says therefore first: the question has been asked what advantage the Jew has; now he has an advantage both as to quantity, which is signified when he says "much," and as to number, which is signified when he says "every way." For they have something more both in the contemplation of divine things, according to Psalm 75:1: "known in Judea," and as to the disposition of temporal things, Psalm 147:20: "He has not done in like manner to every nation." They also have more as to the fathers, as to the promises, and as to the offspring. Below, 9:4: "whose is the adoption of the sons of God, and the glory, and the testament." And in each one of these there is no small excellence but a great and special one, which pertains to what he says, "much." For the greatest good of man is in the knowledge of God, in this, that he cleave to God and be instructed by God, Psalm 93:12: "Blessed is the man whom you shall instruct, O Lord."

Then, when he says "first indeed," etc., he makes clear what he had said, saying: "first indeed," that is, the Jews have an advantage above all chiefly because the words of God were entrusted to them, as to friends, John 15:15: "I have called you friends." And this is much, because the words of God are honorable, Psalm 18:10: "the words of the Lord are true, justified in themselves"; they are delightful, Psalm 118:113: "how sweet are your words to my palate"; they are also profitable for not sinning, in the same Psalm: "in my heart I have hidden your words, that I might not sin against you."

Then, when he says, "for what if some," he excludes an objection. And first he states it; second he excludes it by leading it to an absurdity, at the words "shall their unbelief"; third he shows that what it is led to is unfitting, at the words "but God is true." Someone could detract from the prerogative of the Jews by objecting their ingratitude, through which they would seem to have lost the dignity of the words of God. Hence he says, "but what if some of them have not believed"; is it not thereby excluded that the Jew has no advantage? According to 2 Peter 2:21: "It would have been better for them not to have known the way of righteousness, than after they had known it, to turn back." Now they did not believe, first indeed, the lawgiver. Psalm 105:24: "They believed not in his word." Second, they did not believe the prophets. Ezekiel 2:6: "They are unbelieving and subverters with you." Third, they did not believe the Son himself. John 8:45: "If I say the truth to you, why do you not believe me?"

Then, when he says "shall their unbelief," he excludes the aforesaid objection by leading it to an absurdity, because if, on account of the unbelief of some, the prerogative of the Jews were taken away, it would follow that the unbelief of man would make void the faith of God, which is unfitting. And this is what he says: shall the unbelief of them, namely of those who did not believe, make void the faith of God? This can be understood in two ways. In one way, of the faith by which one believes in God. For it is not the case that, because some did not believe, the faith of those who did believe is made void. For the evil of some existing within a society does not make void the good of others. Ecclesiasticus 33:12: "Some of them he has blessed and exalted, and some he has sanctified and brought near to himself," and so on. This is against those against whom Augustine speaks in his letter to the people of Hippo: "To what other end do these sit, and what else do they discuss, except that, when a bishop, or a cleric, or a monk, or a nun has fallen, they may believe all such persons to be the same, but that not all can be exposed?" In another way it can be understood of the faith by which God is faithful in fulfilling his promises. Hebrews 10:23: "For he is faithful who has promised." Now this fidelity would be made void if, on account of the unbelief of some, it should happen that the Jew had no advantage. For God promised to multiply and magnify that people, as is clear in Genesis 22:16: "I will multiply your seed."

Then, when he says "God forbid," "but God is," he shows that it is unfitting that the faith of God should be made void on account of the unbelief of men. And first indeed he brings forward a reason for this; second, an authority, at the words "as it is written"; third, he excludes a false understanding of the author cited, at the words "but if our injustice." Now the reason is taken from this, that God according to himself is true. Jeremiah 10:10: "But the Lord God is true"; 1 John, at the end: "This is the true God and life eternal." And yet every man is a liar. Psalm 115:10: "I said in my excess, every man is a liar." Whence it is clear that the lie of man, or unbelief not cleaving to the truth, does not make void the truth or faith of God.

For the clarification of these things it must be known that truth imports the equation of a thing to the intellect. Now a thing is equated to our intellect in one way, and to the divine intellect in another. For our intellect receives its knowledge from things, and therefore the cause and measure of its truth is the being of the thing: for from the fact that a thing is, or is not, a statement is said to be true or false, according to the Philosopher. Hence our intellect can be true or false, insofar as it can be equated or not equated. But that which can be and not be needs another agent in order that it may be, without which it remains non-being. For just as air, without something illuminating it, remains dark, so too our intellect, unless it is illumined by the first truth, remains of itself in falsehood. Hence, as far as it is of itself, every man is a liar as to intellect, but he is true only insofar as he participates in divine truth. Psalm 42:3: "Send forth your light and your truth." But the divine intellect is the cause and measure of things, and for this reason, according to itself, it is unfailingly true, and each and every thing is true insofar as it is conformed to it. Similarly, according as truth is taken on the part of the thing, man of himself does not have truth, because his nature is convertible into nothing; but only the divine nature, which is neither from nothing nor convertible into nothing, has truth of itself.

Then, when he says "as it is written," he proves the same point by the authority of Psalm 50:6, where it is read thus: "that you may be justified in your words, and may overcome when you are judged." How this bears upon the point at hand can be seen, if the preceding words of the Psalm are considered. For it is stated beforehand, "against you only have I sinned," and then follows, "that you may be justified in your words, and may overcome when you are judged." For God had promised David, through the prophet Nathan, that he would establish his kingdom forever in his seed, as is found in 2 Kings 7:12. But afterward, when he fell into a grave sin, namely of adultery and murder, as is read in 2 Kings 11:2 and following, on account of this sin it was said by some that God would not keep his promise to him.

The intention of the Psalmist, then, is to say two things. First indeed, that on account of his sin the justice of God is not changed, to which it pertains that he should fulfill his words. And as to this he says, "that you may be justified in your words," that is, that from this you may appear just in your words, because on account of my sins you do not pass them by. Proverbs 8:8: "All my words are right." Psalm 144:13: "The Lord is faithful in all his words." Second, that the divine promise should surpass human judgment. And this is what he says, "may overcome," namely by keeping your promise, "when you are judged," namely by men: that is, that on account of my sins you would not fulfill it. Below, 12:21: "Be not overcome by evil, but overcome evil by good." This is said to man, which pertains much more to God.

Now it must be considered that the promise made to David by God was to be fulfilled concerning the incarnation of Christ. Hence it pertained to the prophecy of predestination, according to which something is promised as to be fulfilled in every way; but what is promised or foretold according to the prophecy of threat is not foretold as to be fulfilled in every way, but according as human merits, which can change, require. And therefore, if what was promised to David had not come to pass, it would have prejudiced the divine justice. But if what is promised through the prophecy of threat does not come to pass, it does not prejudice the divine justice, but signifies a change of human merits. Hence he says, Jeremiah 18:7: "I will suddenly speak against a nation and against a kingdom, to root up, and to pull down, and to destroy it. If that nation shall repent," etc., "I also will repent of the evil," and so on. Thus, then, it is clear according to this sense, that the sin of man does not exclude the divine fidelity.

There are also given other senses of this authority in the Gloss, which do not pertain so much to the intention of the Apostle, the first of which is, that these words, which are set down here, are to be joined with what the Psalmist had said before: "Wash me yet more from my iniquity," to this end, namely, "that you may be justified," that is, that you may appear just, "in your words," in which you promised pardon to sinners — not only in Ezekiel, since these words of the Psalm were said earlier, but also Leviticus 24:41: "they shall pray for their iniquities, and I will remember my covenant," and so on. Deuteronomy 30:1: "if, led by repentance of heart, you shall return to God, the Lord your God will bring you back, and will have mercy on you." And thus "may you overcome when you are judged" by men — namely their judgment that you ought not to grant me pardon.

Second, these words are joined with what was said, "against you only have I sinned," that is, by comparison to you who alone are just. And this is what he says, "that you may be justified," that is, that by comparison with me and the sins of others you may appear just, Psalm 10:8: "The Lord is just, and has loved justice," and this not only in deeds, but also in words, which is the greatest thing, according to James 3:2: "if any man does not offend in word"; and "may overcome when you are judged," that is, whenever you are compared to any other whatsoever in judgment. Isaiah 5:3: "judge between me and my vineyard," and so on.

Third, these words are referred to Christ, who alone is without sin, according to 1 Peter 2:22: "who did no sin, neither was guile found in his mouth," and thus he is justified in his words in comparison to all men. And "may you overcome," namely, sin, death, and the Devil. Revelation 5:5: "behold, the lion has overcome." And this while "you are judged," namely unjustly by Pilate. Job 36:17: "your cause has been judged as that of the wicked."

Then, when he says "but if our injustice," he excludes a false understanding of the authority he had cited. For someone could understand the aforesaid words according to this sense, that this word "that" be taken causally and not merely consecutively. And thus it would follow that the sin of man is directly ordered to commending the justice of God. But the Apostle shows this to be false, so as to give one to understand that the word "that" is put consecutively, namely, that, David having sinned, it followed that the divine justice was made manifest; but not causally, as though the sin of man commended the justice of God. This indeed he proves by leading it to an absurdity. And this in two ways. First indeed on the part of the divine judgment, second on the part of human judgment. Concerning the first he does three things. First he sets forth the false sense; second he shows the absurdity which follows from this, at the words, "what shall we say? Is God unjust"; third he shows this to be unfitting, at the word "God forbid."

It must be considered that above the Apostle had made two comparisons: one indeed of the divine truth to human falsehood, when he had said: "but God is true, and every man a liar." The other of the justice of God to human sin, according to the words of Psalm 50:6, in which he says: "against you only have I sinned, that you may be justified." And as to the first comparison, he says: if these words are to be understood as meaning that our injustice directly commends the justice of God, what shall we say? That is, we shall not be able to bear the absurdities that follow. For sin is not necessary to God for the commending of his justice. Ecclesiasticus 15:22: "he does not desire a multitude of unfaithful and unprofitable children."

Now he expresses the absurdity which follows, saying: is God, who inflicts wrath, that is, vengeance for sin, unjust? For this follows from what has been said. For if sin were directly ordered to the commending of justice, it would be worthy not of punishment but of reward. And thus God, in punishing men for sin, would be unjust — against that saying of Deuteronomy 32:4: "God is faithful and without any iniquity." He then consequently excludes this absurdity, when he adds, "God forbid," namely, that God should be unjust. "I speak according to man," that is, that I have put forth these words not from my own understanding, but from the understanding of an erring man, as it is said in 1 Corinthians 3:3: "whereas there is among you envying and contention, are you not carnal?"

Now he shows that this ought not to be said, adding, "otherwise," namely, if God is unjust, how will he judge this world? That is, how would it be fitting that he should be the universal and supreme judge of the world? For it is necessary that what is first and supreme in any genus be infallible: just as the first mover is immutable. Hence in Psalm 95:13 it is said: "he will judge the world in equity." And a similar argument is set forth in Job 34:12 and following, where it is said: "in very deed God will not condemn without cause, neither will the Almighty pervert judgment. Whom has he set over the earth besides himself?" etc., namely because if he himself did not judge justly, one would have to say that another was judge of the world.

Then, when he says "for if the truth," he shows the same point through human judgment. And concerning this also he does three things. First he sets forth the false understanding of the aforesaid words; second he sets down the absurdity which follows, at the words "why yet"; third he shows that to be unfitting, at the words "whose damnation." Now he expresses the false sense according to that comparison which is of divine truth to human falsehood, when he says: "for if through my lie," that is, on account of my lie, "the truth of God," namely made manifest, "has abounded unto his glory," in such a way that the lie of man pertains directly to the increase of his glory — against what is said in Job 13:7: "does God need your lie?"

He then subjoins consequently two absurdities which follow. Of these, one is that man ought not to be reckoned a sinner on account of a lie, since it is directly ordered to the glory of God. And this is what he says: "why yet," that is, why even now, "am I also judged," namely by men, "as a sinner," for a lie. Wisdom 17:10: "for wickedness, being fearful, has given testimony to its condemnation," since, namely, sinners are condemned by everyone's judgment.

The other absurdity is that the false statement would have a place, which was imputed to the apostles. For because they preached that through the abundance of the grace of Christ the abundance of sins was dissolved, according to what is said below, 5:20: "where sin abounded, grace has abounded still more," they blasphemed the apostles, as if to say that men ought to do evil that good might come, which would follow if the lie of man directly commended the truth and grace of God. This is what he says: "let us not do evil," namely by sinning, and by teaching falsehood, "that good may come," namely that the truth and justice of God may be commended, "as we are slandered," that is, as some, by slandering, impute to us. Below, 1 Corinthians 4:5: "we are blasphemed, and we entreat"; and as some say we say, distorting our words. 2 Peter, at the end: "which the unlearned and unstable distort."

But these things he excludes by adding, "whose damnation is just," that is, of those who do evil that good may come. For just as one ought not to syllogize truly from false premises, so one ought not to arrive at a good end through evil means. Jeremiah 12:1: "it is well with all that transgress, and do wickedly," which is said from the persons of the wicked. Or, "whose," namely of those who falsely impute these things to us, "damnation is just." For the perverters of sacred doctrine are justly condemned. Revelation, at the end: "if any man shall add to these, God shall add unto him the plagues written in this book."

After the Apostle showed the prerogative of the Jews over the Gentiles as regards the divine benefits, here he excludes their empty glorying, by which they preferred themselves to the Gentiles who had been converted to the faith. And first he sets forth what he intends; second he proves his proposition, at the words "for we have charged." He says therefore first: thus it was said, "What advantage then hath the Jew?" First indeed, because the oracles of God were entrusted to them. "What then," shall we Jews converted to the faith say? "Do we excel them," namely the Gentiles converted to the faith? Concerning which there was a dispute among them. Luke 22:24: "And there was also a strife among the disciples of Jesus, which of them should seem to be the greater." And answering, he adds, "No, not so." But this seems to be against what was said before, in which it was said, "much every way," is more to the Jew. But to this it is answered in the Gloss that that was said with regard to the being which the Jews had in the time of the law; but this the Apostle now says according to the state of grace, because, as it is said in Colossians 3:11, "in Christ there is neither Gentile nor Jew, circumcision nor uncircumcision," since these make no difference as to the state of grace. But this response does not seem to be entirely according to the intention of the Apostle, because below he will show that even while they were under the law they were subject to sins, just as the Gentiles were, or even more. Ezekiel 5:5f: "This is Jerusalem, I have set her in the midst of the nations, and the countries round about her... she hath despised my judgments, so as to be more wicked than the nations?" Thus therefore it must be said that above he showed the prerogative of the divine benefits, whence he did not say that the Jew was more excellent, but that something more had been given to the Jew; but here he excludes the excellence of persons, because those who received the divine benefits did not use them as they ought.

Then, when he says "for we have charged," he shows his proposition, and first that the Jews do not exceed the Gentiles as regards the state of sin; second, that they do not exceed them as regards the state of righteousness, at the words "but now without the law." He shows the first in two ways. First indeed from what was said above; second by an authority, at the words "as it is written." He says therefore, "for we have charged," that is, by arguing with reasons we have shown, "both Jews and Greeks," that is, Gentiles, that "they are all under sin." Isaiah 1:6: "From the sole of the foot unto the top of the head, there is no soundness therein," etc. For he showed first that the Gentiles held down the known truth of God in impiety and injustice; second, that the Jews, having received the law, dishonored God through transgression of the law.

Then, when he says "as it is written," he shows his proposition through the authority of the Psalmist, and first he introduces the authority, second he explains it, at the words "now we know." Concerning the first he does two things. First he sets down the sins of omission; second, the sins of commission, at the words "their throat is an open sepulchre." Now he touches on the sins of omission in two ways. First indeed by removing the principles of good works; second, by removing the good works themselves, at the words "they are all gone out of the way." Now there are three principles of good works, of which one pertains to the rectitude of the work itself, and this is justice, which he excludes saying, "as it is written," namely in Psalm 13:3, that "there is none righteous, no, not one." Micah 7:2: "The holy man is perished out of the earth, and there is none upright among men." This indeed can be understood in two ways. In one way, that it be understood: no one is righteous in himself, of himself, but of himself each one is a sinner, and has righteousness from God alone. Exodus 34:6f: "O Lord, the ruler, God, merciful and gracious, who takest away iniquity and sins, and no one is innocent before thee of himself." In another way, that no one is righteous with regard to all things, without having some sin, according to Proverbs 20:9: "Who can say: My heart is clean?" Ecclesiastes 7:21: "There is no just man on earth who does good and does not sin." Third, it can also be understood as referring to a people of evil men, among whom none is righteous. For it is the custom of Scripture sometimes to speak of the whole people by reason of the evil, sometimes by reason of the good, as is clear in Jeremiah 26:8f, where it is said that when Jeremiah had finished speaking all that the Lord had commanded him to speak to the whole people, the priests and the prophets, and all the people, seized him, saying: he shall surely die. And afterward it is added: the princes and all the people said, there is no judgment of death for this man. But the first two senses are more in accord with the intention of the Apostle. And the same must be said in what follows. Now the second principle of a good work is the discernment of reason. And this he excludes, adding: "there is none that understandeth." Psalm: "They have not known nor understood," and elsewhere: "he would not understand." The third principle is the rectitude of intention, which he excludes, adding, "there is none that seeketh God," namely by directing his intention toward him. Hosea 10:12: "It is time to seek the Lord, who, when he shall come, will teach justice."

Consequently he excludes the good works themselves. And first indeed as to the offense against the divine law, when he says, "they are all gone out of the way," namely from the rule of the divine law. Isaiah 56:11: "They have all turned aside into their own way." Second, as to the showing of the end; whence he adds, "they are together become unprofitable." For we call that unprofitable, which does not pursue its own end. And therefore when men turn aside from God, for whom they were made, they are rendered unprofitable. Wisdom 4:3: "the multitude of the wicked shall not be profitable." Third, he excludes the good works themselves, when he adds, "there is none that doeth good." Jeremiah 4:22: "They are wise to do evil, but to do good they have no knowledge." But he adds, "no, not one," which can be understood in one way exclusively, as if he were saying, except for one, namely him who alone did good by redeeming the human race. Ecclesiastes 7:29: "One man among a thousand I have found, a woman I have not found." Or it can be understood inclusively, as if he says, not even one mere man does good, namely perfect good. Jeremiah 5:1: "Seek in the streets thereof, if you can find a man that executeth judgment, and seeketh faith."

Then, when he says, "their throat is an open sepulchre," he sets down the sins of commission, and first the sins of the mouth; second, the sins of deed, at the words "their feet are swift." But the sins of the heart are detected from these sins. Concerning the sin of the mouth he sets down four things. First, readiness, or foulness, when he says, "their throat is an open sepulchre." For an open sepulchre has two things. It is prepared to receive a dead body, and according to this a man's throat is said to be an open sepulchre when it is ready to utter deadly things, in the manner in which it is said in Jeremiah 5:16: "their quiver is as an open sepulchre." Second, it exhales a stench. Matthew 23:27: "they are like to whited sepulchres, which outwardly appear to men beautiful, but within are full of dead men's bones, and of all filthiness." Their throat therefore is an open sepulchre, from whose mouth proceeds the stench of foul speech. Apocalypse 9:17: "and from their mouths proceeded fire and smoke and brimstone." Second, concerning the sin of the mouth, he touches on deceit, when he says, "with their tongues they have dealt deceitfully," namely by having one thing in the heart and another in the mouth. Jeremiah 9:8: "their tongue is a wounding arrow, it hath spoken deceit." Third, he sets down the harmfulness of words, when he says, "the venom of asps is under their lips," because indeed such words come about as incurably kill their neighbors, whether spiritually or bodily. Deuteronomy 32:33: "their wine is the gall of dragons, and the venom," etc. Fourth, he designates the abundance of these sins, when he says, "whose mouth is full of cursing and bitterness," because indeed in such men cursing always abounds, since they curse others by detraction, against what is said below, 12:14: "bless, and curse not." And "bitterness," inasmuch as they do not fear to say injurious words to the face of their neighbor, by which they are provoked to bitterness, against what is said in Ephesians 4:31: "let all bitterness be taken away from you."

Then, when he says, "their feet are swift," he touches on the sins of deed, concerning which he touches on three things. First indeed, readiness to do evil. Whence he says, "their feet are swift," their feet are ready — that is, their affections — "to shed blood," that is, to commit whatsoever grave sins, because among the other things we commit against our neighbor, homicide is more grave. Proverbs 1:16: "their feet run to evil, and they make haste to shed blood." Second, he touches on the multitude of harms which they inflict on others, when he adds, "in their ways," that is, in their works, "is destruction," because indeed they crush others by oppressing them. Isaiah 10:7: "to crush his heart." And "unhappiness," inasmuch indeed as they deprive men of their goods, leading them into misery. Job 24:7: "they send away men naked, taking away their clothing," etc. These two, however, can be understood to be set down to designate punishment rather than fault, so that the sense would be: "in their ways is destruction and unhappiness," that is, their works, which are designated by the ways, lead them to destruction and unhappiness. So that "destruction" would refer to the oppression of punishment by which they will be punished for their sins — Isaiah 30:14: "they shall be broken to pieces, as a potter's vessel is broken" — while "unhappiness" is to be referred to the punishment of loss, since they will be deprived of eternal happiness. Wisdom 13:10: "but unhappy are they, and their hope is among the dead." Third, he shows the obstinacy of their guilt toward evil, from which indeed some are called back in two ways. In one way, by this, that they wish to have peace from men. But against this it is said, "and the way of peace they have not known," that is, they have not accepted it. Psalm 119:7: "with them that hated peace." In another way, by regard for the fear of God, but these men neither fear God nor respect man, as is said in Luke 18:7. Whence it is added, "there is no fear of God before their eyes," that is, before their consideration. Ecclesiasticus 1:27: "the fear of the Lord driveth out sin." For he who is without fear will not be able to be justified. But this can also be said specially against the Jews, who do not believe in Christ, that they did not know the way of peace, that is, Christ, of whom it is said in Ephesians 2:14: "he is our peace."

Then, when he says, "now we know that whatsoever," he explains the authority he introduced in three ways. First indeed by expounding its sense; second by expounding its intention, at the words "that every mouth"; third, by assigning the reason for what is said in it, at the words "because by the works." Concerning the first, it must be considered that the Jews, against whom the Apostle was here speaking, could, for their own excuse, pervert the sense of the authority introduced, saying that the aforesaid words are to be understood of the Gentiles, not of the Jews. But the Apostle excludes this, saying, "we know that whatsoever the law saith, it speaketh to them who are in the law," that is, to those to whom the law was given, and who profess the law. Deuteronomy 33:4: "Moses commanded us a law." But the Gentiles were not under the law, and according to this the aforesaid words pertain to the Jews.

But here there is a twofold objection. The first indeed, because the words introduced above are not taken from the law, but from the Psalm. But to this it must be said that sometimes the name "law" is taken for the whole Old Testament, not only for the five books of Moses, according to John 15:25: "that the word may be fulfilled which is written in their law: they hated me without cause" — which is written in the Old Testament, not in the five books of Moses, which are properly called the law. And thus also is "law" taken here. But sometimes the whole Old Testament is divided into three, namely into the law, the Psalms, and the prophets, according to the last chapter of Luke: "it is necessary that all things be fulfilled, which are written in the law of Moses, and in the Psalms, and in the prophets, concerning me." Sometimes, however, the whole Old Testament is divided into two, namely into the law and the prophets, according to Matthew 22:40: "on these two commandments dependeth the whole law and the prophets." And according to this way, the Psalter is contained under the prophets.

The second objection is, that in the law, that is, in the Old Testament, many things are said pertaining to other nations, as is clear in many passages of Isaiah and Jeremiah, where many things are said against Babylon, and likewise against other nations. Therefore not whatsoever the law says, it says to and of those who are in the law. But it must be said that whatever it speaks indeterminately seems to pertain to those to whom the law was given; but when Scripture speaks of others, it designates the others by a special title, as when it is said, "the burden of Babylon," and "the burden of Tyre," etc. The things which are said against other nations in the Old Testament pertained in some way to the Jews, inasmuch as the misfortunes of those nations were foretold for their consolation or their terror, just as also a preacher ought to say those things which pertain to those to whom he preaches, and not those which pertain to others. Isaiah 58:1: "declare to my people their wicked doings," as if he were saying, not those which belong to others.

Then, when he says, "that every mouth," etc., he assigns the intention of the aforesaid authority: for Sacred Scripture convicts all of injustice on account of two things. First indeed, to repress their boasting, by which they judged themselves righteous, according to Luke 18:12: "I fast twice in a week." And as to this he says, "that every mouth may be stopped," namely the mouth which presumptuously ascribed righteousness to itself. Psalm 62:12: "stopped is the mouth of them that speak unjust things." 1 Kings 2:3: "do not multiply to speak lofty things, boasting." Second, that, recognizing their own guilt, they might subject themselves to God, as a sick man to a physician. Whence he adds, "and all the world may be made subject to God," that is, not only the Gentile but also the Jew, recognizing his own guilt. Psalm 61:2: "shall not my soul be subject to God?"

Then, when he says, "because by the works of the law," he assigns the reason for the aforesaid words. And first he sets down the reason; second he explains it, at the words "for by the law," etc. He says therefore first: therefore there is none righteous, because "all flesh," that is, every man, "is not justified before him," that is, according to his judgment, "by the works of the law," because, as it is said in Galatians 2:21: "if righteousness be by the law, then Christ died in vain," and in Titus 3:5: "not by the works of righteousness which we have done, but according to his mercy he saved us." Now there is a twofold work of the law. One indeed is proper to the Mosaic law, such as the observance of the ceremonial precepts; the other is a work of the law of nature, since it pertains to the natural law, such as: "thou shalt not kill," "thou shalt not steal," etc. Some therefore understand this to have been said of the first works of the law, namely that the ceremonial precepts did not confer the grace by which men are justified. However this does not seem to be the intention of the Apostle, which is clear from the fact that he immediately adds, "for by the law is the knowledge of sin." But it is manifest that sins are known through the prohibition of the moral precepts, and thus the Apostle intends that by all the works of the law, even those which are commanded by the moral precepts, man is not justified, in such a way that righteousness would be caused in him from works, because, as is said below, 11:3: "for if by grace, now it is not of works."

Then, when he says, "for by the law," he proves what he had said, namely that the works of the law do not justify. For the law is given so that man may know what he ought to do, and what to avoid. Psalm 147:20: "he hath not done in like manner to every nation, and his judgments he hath not made manifest to them." Proverbs 6:23: "the commandment is a lamp, and the law a light, and the way of life." But from the fact that man knows a sin, which he ought to avoid as forbidden, it does not immediately follow that he avoids it, which pertains to the nature of righteousness, because concupiscence subverts the judgment of reason in the particular matter to be done. And therefore the law does not suffice for justifying, but another remedy is necessary, by which concupiscence may be repressed.

After the Apostle has shown that Jews and gentiles are equal as regards the preceding state of guilt, he here shows that they are equal as regards the subsequent state of grace. And concerning this he does three things. First he sets forth his proposal; second he shows a certain thing which he had presupposed, at the words "Is he the God of the Jews only?"; third he answers an objection, at the words "Do we then destroy the law?" Concerning the first he does three things. First he proposes what he intends; second he manifests his proposal, at the words "there is no distinction"; third he infers the intended conclusion, at the words "Where is then your boasting?" Concerning the first he does three things. First he sets forth the relation of justice to the law; second he assigns the cause of justice, at the words "but the justice of God"; third he assigns the community of this kind of justice, at the words "unto all," and so on.

He sets forth, then, first, a twofold comparison or relation of justice to the law. First indeed, that it is not caused by the law. And this is what he says: it has been said that formerly, through works of the law, the justice of God could not exist — either because he himself is just, fulfilling the promises concerning the justification of men (below, chapter 15:8: "For I say that Christ was minister of the circumcision for the truth of God"); or rather the justice of God by which someone is justified by God, of which it is said below, 10:3: "not knowing the justice of God." This justice of God, I say, is now, that is, in the time of grace, made manifest — both through the teaching of Christ, and through his miracles, and also through the evidence of fact, inasmuch as it is evident that many have been divinely justified. And this without the law, namely, without the law causing justice. Galatians 5:4: "You are made void of Christ, you who are justified in the law; you are fallen from grace." Isaiah 56:1: "My salvation is near to come, and my justice to be revealed." And lest anyone believe this justice to be contrary to the law, second, he sets forth another relation of justice to the law when he says, "being witnessed by the law and the prophets." The law indeed testified to the justice of Christ by foretelling and prefiguring it: John 5:46: "If you did believe Moses, you would perhaps believe me also; for he wrote of me" — and also through its effect, because, since it could not itself justify, it bore witness that justice was to be sought elsewhere. The prophets, however, testified to it by foretelling it. Acts 10:43: "To him all the prophets give testimony."

Consequently he assigns the cause of this justice, and says: "but the justice of God is by faith of Jesus Christ," that is, the faith which he himself handed down. Hebrews 12:2: "Looking on Jesus, the author of faith," and so on. Or also the faith which is held concerning him. Below, 10:9: "For if you confess with your mouth the Lord Jesus, and believe in your heart that God has raised him up from the dead, you shall be saved." Now the justice of God is said to be by faith of Jesus Christ, not as though by faith we merit to be justified, as if faith itself existed of ourselves and through it we merited the justice of God, as the Pelagians said, but because in the very justification by which we are justified by God, the first movement of the mind toward God is through faith. For "he that comes to God must believe," as is said in Hebrews 11:6. Whence faith itself is, as it were, the first part of the justice which is from God in us. Ephesians 2:8: "By grace you are saved through faith," and so on.

This faith, however, from which justice comes, is not unformed faith, of which it is said, James 2:26: "Faith without works is dead," but it is faith formed by charity, of which it is said, Galatians 5:6: "For in Christ Jesus neither circumcision avails anything, nor uncircumcision, but faith that works by charity" — through which Christ dwells in us. Ephesians 3:17: "That Christ may dwell by faith in your hearts," which does not happen without charity. 1 John 4:16: "He that abides in charity, abides in God, and God in him." This is also the faith of which it is said, Acts 15:9: "purifying their hearts by faith" — which purification indeed does not happen without charity. Proverbs 10:12: "Charity covers all sins."

And lest anyone say that by this faith only the Jews are justified, third, he shows the community of this justice, when he adds "unto all" — namely, this justice is in the heart, not in carnal observances, of which it is said, Hebrews 9:10, that carnal observances pertained to the justification of the flesh, until the time of correction imposed. And "upon all," because it evidently exceeds human capacity and merits. 2 Corinthians 3:5: "Not that we are sufficient to think." He adds, however, "who believe in him," which pertains to formed faith, through which man is justified, as has been said.

Then, when he says "for there is no distinction," he manifests what he had said, and first as to the community of justice; second as to its cause, at the words "being justified freely"; third as to its manifestation, at the words "for the shewing." He says therefore first: it has been said, the justification of God is unto all and upon all who believe in Christ; for there is no distinction, as to this, between Jew and gentile. Colossians 3:11: "In Christ Jesus there is neither gentile nor Jew," namely, having any distinction, as if the Jew did not need to be justified by God as did the gentile. For "all have sinned," as has been shown above. Isaiah 53:6: "All we like sheep have gone astray," and through this "they need the glory of God," that is, the justification which redounds to the glory of God. Man, however, ought not to ascribe this glory to himself. Psalm 113:1: "Not to us, O Lord, not to us, but to your name give glory." Psalm 65:2: "Give glory to God." Thus, then, because all have sinned, and cannot be justified of themselves, it remains that they be justified by another cause, which he consequently shows when he adds "being justified." Here he first shows that this kind of justification is without the law, that is, that it is not from works of the law, when he says "being justified freely," that is, without merit of preceding works. Isaiah 52:3: "You were sold for nothing, and you shall be redeemed without money." And this "by his grace," namely, God's, to whom on this account glory is owed. 1 Corinthians 15:10: "By the grace of God I am what I am."

Second, he shows what the cause of justification is. And first he sets forth the cause itself, when he says, "through the redemption": for as is said, John 8:34, "he who commits sin is the servant of sin" — from which servitude man is redeemed if he makes satisfaction for sin. Just as if someone, on account of a fault committed, were bound to a king to pay money, he who paid the money for him would be said to redeem him from the offense. Now this offense pertained to the whole human race, which was infected through the sin of the first parent. Whence no one else could make satisfaction for the sin of the whole human race, except Christ alone, who was immune from all sin. Whence he adds, "that is in Christ Jesus," as if to say: in another there could not be for us redemption. 1 Peter 1:18: "not with corruptible things, as gold or silver." Second, he shows whence this redemption had its efficacy, when he says, "whom God has proposed to be a propitiation." For from this Christ's satisfaction had efficacy to justify and to redeem, because God had ordained him to this according to his own purpose, which he designates when he says, "whom God has proposed to be a propitiation." Ephesians 1:11: "who works all things according to the counsel of his will." Or "proposed," that is, he set forth on behalf of all, because the human race had no means by which it could make satisfaction, unless God himself gave them a redeemer and one who could make satisfaction. Psalm 110:9: "He has sent redemption to his people." And thus, while by making satisfaction he redeems us from the offense of sin, he renders God propitious to our sins, which the Psalmist was asking for when he said, "Be propitious to our sins" — and therefore he calls him "a propitiation." 1 John 2:2: "propitiation." In figure of which, Exodus 25:17, it is commanded that a propitiatory be made, that is, that Christ be set upon the ark, that is, the Church.

Third, he shows through what means the effect of the redemption reaches us, when he says, "through faith in his blood," that is, the faith which is concerning his blood shed for us. For that he might make satisfaction for us, it was fitting that he undergo for us the penalty of death, which man had incurred through sin, according to Genesis 2:17: "In what day soever," and so on. Whence it is said, 1 Peter 3:18: "Christ died once for our sins." Now this death of Christ is applied to us through faith, by which we believe that through his death he redeemed the world. Galatians 2:20: "I live in the faith of the Son of God, who loved me," and so on. For even among men the satisfaction of one for another would not avail unless he to whom it is owed holds it as valid. And thus it is clear how justice is through faith of Jesus Christ, as has been said above.

But because he had also said above that the justice of God is now made manifest, he consequently deals with this manifestation, and first he touches on the manner of the manifestation, saying "for the shewing," as if to say: this, I say, has been done, that we might be justified through the redemption of Christ and through faith in his blood, "for the shewing of his justice," that is, to the end that God might show forth his justice, and this "for the remission of former sins." For in this, that God remitted former sins, which the law could not remit, nor could men by their own power guard themselves against them, he shows that justice is necessary for men, by which they may be justified by God. Now only through the blood of Christ could sins be remitted — not only present sins, but past ones — because the power of Christ's blood operates through the faith of man, which faith indeed those had who preceded the passion of Christ, just as we also have it. 2 Corinthians 4:13: "having the same spirit of faith, we believe." Whence it is also read otherwise, so that it is said "for the remission of sins," which sins are those of men who preceded the passion of Christ. Whence it is said, Micah, last chapter: "he will put away our iniquities and cast them," and so on.

Second, he shows the time of its manifestation, when he adds "in the forbearance of God, for the shewing of his justice in this time." As if he were saying: the former sins were, before the passion of Christ, in the forbearance of God, as it were in a certain divine sustaining of God — because he neither condemns those who, for those sins, believe and repent, nor does he render them wholly absolved from them, so that, these not standing in the way, they may enter into glory. Or, according to another reading, it can be understood that the holy fathers themselves were in the forbearance of God, because they were detained in Limbo, not indeed suffering sensible punishment, but awaiting to enter into glory through the passion of Christ. Ecclesiasticus 2:3: "Wait on the sustainings of God." To this end, I say, the former sins, or the former fathers, were in the forbearance of God, namely for the shewing of his justice in this time, that is, that in this time of grace he might perfectly show forth his justice, granting the full remission of sins. Psalm 101:14: "The time has come," and so on. And 2 Corinthians 6:2: "Behold, now is the acceptable time," and so on. And this is what he had said above, that the justice of God is now made manifest. It was fitting, however, that the former sins, up to this time, should be in the forbearance of God, so that man might first be convinced of a defect of knowledge, because in the time of the law of nature he fell into errors and shameful sins; and also of a defect of power, because after the written law, which produced the knowledge of sin, man still sinned through weakness.

Third, he shows that through the remission of sins the justice of God is shown forth, whether the justice of God be taken as that by which he himself is just, or as that by which he justifies others. Whence he adds, "that he himself may be just," that is, that through the remission of sins God may appear to be just in himself — both because he remits sins as he had promised, and because it pertains to the justice of God that he destroy sins, bringing men back to the justice of God. Psalm 10:8: "The Lord is just, and has loved justice." And also, that he may be "the justifier of him who is of the faith of Jesus Christ," that is, of him who through faith of Jesus Christ approaches God. Hebrews 11:6: "For he who comes to God must believe."

After the Apostle has shown that the Jews do not go before the Gentiles, neither with respect to the state of guilt nor with respect to the state of righteousness, here he draws the conclusion he intended, namely by excluding their boasting by which they preferred themselves to the Gentiles. And concerning this he does three things: first he sets forth the exclusion of this boasting; second, the cause of the exclusion, at the words "by what law"; third he shows the manner in which it is excluded, at the words "for we reckon," and so on.

Concerning the first he does two things. First he poses the question, saying: since you, O Jew, are commonly under sin just as the Gentile is, and since the Gentile is justified through faith just as you are, where is your boasting? That is, the boasting by which you glory in the law, as was said above, and by which you wish to prefer yourself to the Gentile. 1 Corinthians 5:6: "Your glorying is not good." Galatians 5:26: "Let us not become desirous of vain glory," and so on. Second, he answers this question, saying, "it is excluded," that is, it has been taken away. 1 Kings 4:21: "and the glory is departed from Israel." Hosea 4:7: "I will change their glory into shame." Or "excluded," that is, it has been expressly made manifest. For the Jews used to glory in the glory and worship of the one God, and he says that this glory of theirs has been "excluded," that is, expressed through Christ, just as craftsmen who stamp out some image in silver are called "excluders," according to Psalm 67:31: "that they may exclude those who are tried as silver." But the first sense is the more literal.

But when he says "by what law," he shows the cause of this exclusion. But because the boasting of the Jews was in the law, as was said above, it therefore seemed necessary that their boasting should be excluded through something of the same kind, that is, through some law. And therefore, asking by way of inquiry, he adds "by what," namely, has their boasting been excluded? But someone might believe that the Apostle meant that their boasting was excluded through certain legal precepts, by which certain greater works were commanded. And therefore, asking, he adds "of works?" As if he were to say: is it by some law of works that I say their boasting is excluded? And he answers that it is not, but through the law of faith. And thus it is clear that the Apostle here introduces a twofold law, namely of works and of faith. And it seems obvious at first that by the law of works is understood the old law, and by the law of faith the new law, through which the Gentile is made equal to the Jew. But there is doubt about this distinction. For faith was necessary in the old law too, just as in the new. Ecclesiasticus 2:8: "You who fear the Lord, believe him," and Psalm 115:10: "I have believed, therefore have I spoken." Indeed, even in the new law certain deeds are required, both of certain sacraments, according to Luke 22:19: "Do this in memory of me"; and also of moral observances, James 1:22: "Be doers of the word, and not hearers only." It must therefore be said that he calls the law of works the law proposed and written externally, through which the external deeds of men are ordered, in that it is commanded what ought to be done, and through prohibition it is shown from what one ought to abstain. But he calls the law of faith the law written within, through which not only external deeds but also the very movements of hearts are disposed, among which the first is the movement of faith. For "with the heart we believe unto righteousness," as is said here and in chapter 5. And he speaks of this law below, at 8:2: "the law of the spirit of life which is in Christ Jesus."

Then, when he says "for we reckon," he shows the manner in which the boasting of the Jews is excluded through the law of faith, saying: for we apostles, taught the truth by Christ, reckon that any man whatsoever, whether Jew or Gentile, is justified through faith. Acts 15:9: "purifying their hearts by faith." And this without the works of the law. And not only without the ceremonial works, which did not confer grace but only signified it, but also without the works of the moral precepts, according to Titus 3:5: "not by the works of righteousness which we have done," and so on. Yet in such a way that this is to be understood as without works that precede righteousness, but not without works that follow upon it, because, as is said in James 2:26: "faith without works," namely, works that follow, "is dead." And therefore it cannot justify.

Then, when he says "or is he the God of the Jews," he shows something that he had presupposed, namely, that the righteousness of faith extends commonly to all. And indeed he had earlier made this manifest by an argument taken from the side of the material cause, when he had said above: "all have sinned and need the grace of God," that is, they are sinners who must be justified through the grace of faith. But a proof that rests on the material cause alone does not suffice, because matter is not moved of itself to form without an agent cause. And therefore here he adds an argument taken from the side of the agent cause, that is, of the one who justifies, who is God. Below, 7:33: "God who justifies." But it is manifest that our God, in justifying, saves those whose God he is, according to Psalm 67:21: "Our God is the God of salvation." But he is not the God of the Jews only, but also of the Gentiles; therefore he justifies both.

Concerning this, then, he does three things. First he poses the question concerning the Jews, when he says, "is he the God of the Jews only?" This might seem so to someone because of what is said in Exodus 5:3: "The God of the Hebrews has called us." It must therefore be said that he was the God of the Jews only through the special worship shown to God by them, wherefore it is said in Psalm 75:2: "In Judea God is known"; yet he was the God of all through the common governance of all things, according to Psalm 46:8: "God is the king of all the earth." Second, he poses the question on the side of the Gentiles, saying: "is he not also of the Gentiles?" namely, is he God? And he answers, "yes, of the Gentiles also," whom indeed he governs and rules, according to Jeremiah 10:7: "Who shall not fear you, O king of the nations?" Third, at the words "for indeed," he manifests by a sign what he had said, as if he were to say: from this it is manifest that God is not only of the Jews but also of the Gentiles, since indeed it is one God who justifies the circumcision, that is, the Jews, by faith; for as is said in Galatians 5:6: "in Christ Jesus neither circumcision nor uncircumcision." But as to his saying "by faith" and "through faith," according to the Gloss these are entirely the same; nevertheless some difference can be observed. For this preposition "by" [ex] sometimes designates a remote cause; this preposition "through" [per] designates a proximate cause. The Jews, then, are said to be justified "by faith," because faith was the first cause from which circumcision and the other legal sacraments proceeded; and thus faith justifies the Jews as a kind of primary cause acting through certain intermediate causes. But the Gentiles are justified immediately through faith itself.

Then, when he says "do we then destroy the law," he excludes a certain objection. For someone might say that he was destroying the aforesaid law, and therefore he asks, saying, "do we then destroy the law through faith," namely from the fact that we say men are justified without the works of the law. And he answers, "God forbid," according to Matthew 5:18: "not one iota, or one tittle shall pass away," and so on. But he adds, "but we establish the law," that is, through faith we perfect and fulfill the law, according to Matthew 5:17: "I have not come to destroy the law, but to fulfill it." And this both with regard to the ceremonial precepts, which, since they were figural, are established and fulfilled by the fact that the truth signified through them is exhibited in the faith of Christ; and also with regard to the moral precepts, because the faith of Christ confers the help of grace for fulfilling the moral precepts of the law, and it also adds certain counsels by which the moral precepts are more safely and firmly kept.