And Adam was not seduced; but the woman being seduced, was in the transgression.

“And the fact too that this grace was revealed by means of a woman agrees with the interpretation that we have given. For since, as the apostle tells us, "the woman, being deceived, was in the transgression," and was by her disobedience foremost in the revolt from God, for this reason she is the first witness of the resurrection. This is so that she might retrieve by her faith in the resurrection the overthrow caused by her disobedience. Indeed, by making herself at the beginning a minister and advocate to her husband of the counsels of the serpent, she brought into human life the beginning of evil and its train of consequences. Therefore, by ministering to his disciples the words of him who slew the rebel dragon, she might become to men the guide of faith, whereby with good reason the first proclamation of death is annulled.”

“But how was Adam not deceived? If he was not deceived, he did not then transgress? Attend carefully. The woman said, "The serpent beguiled me." But the man did not say, The woman deceived me, but, "she gave me of the tree, and I did eat." Now it is not the same thing to be deceived by a fellow-creature, one of the same kind, as by an inferior and subordinate animal. This is truly to be deceived. Compared therefore with the woman, he is spoken of as "not deceived." For she was beguiled by an inferior and subject, he by an equal. Again, it is not said of the man, that he "saw the tree was good for food," but of the woman, and that she "did eat, and gave it to her husband": so that he transgressed, not captivated by appetite, but merely from the persuasion of his wife. The woman taught once, and ruined all. On this account therefore he saith, let her not teach. But what is it to other women, that she suffered this? It certainly concerns them; for the sex is weak and fickle, and he is speaking of the sex collectively. For he says not Eve, but "the woman," which is the common name of the whole sex, not her proper name. Was then the whole sex included in the transgression for her fault? As he said of Adam, "After the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figure of Him that was to come"; so here the female sex transgressed, and not the male.”

“So, too, we must believe that Adam transgressed the law of God, not because he was deceived into believing that the lie was true but because in obedience to a social compulsion he yielded to Eve, as husband to wife, as the only man in the world to the only woman. It was not without reason that the apostle wrote, "Adam was not deceived, but the woman was deceived." He means, no doubt, that Eve accepted the serpent's word as true, whereas Adam refused to be separated from his partner even in a union of sin. This does not imply that he was on that account any less guilty, since he sinned knowingly and deliberately.”

“For the Apostle above gave directions to women with regard to prayer; here he directs them with regard to teaching. And first he sets down his ordinance concerning their teaching; second he assigns the reason for the ordinance, at the words *For Adam was first*; third he answers a tacit question, at the words *yet she shall be saved*. Again, first he shows what is fitting for women; second, what does not belong to them, at the words *but to teach*. Concerning the first, he sets down three things as belonging to them, namely silence, being taught, and subjection; these three proceed from one reason, namely from a defect of reason in them. To these he first enjoins silence, saying *let a woman learn in silence*, etc. James 3:2: *If anyone offends not in word, he is a perfect man*; and 1 Cor. 14:34: *let women keep silence in the churches, for it is not permitted them to speak*, etc. For a woman's words are inflaming. Ecclesiasticus 9:11: *her talk burns as it were with fire*. Second, that they should learn, because it is proper to those who are deficient in reason to be learning. 1 Cor. 14:35: *but if they wish to learn anything, let them ask their husbands at home*, etc. But to men it is given that they should teach. Third, he enjoins subjection, because it is natural that the soul should rule the body, and reason the lower powers. And therefore, as the Philosopher teaches, whenever two things are related to one another as the soul to the body, and reason to sensuality, the natural dominion belongs to that one which abounds in reason, and that one rules, while the other is subject, namely the one that is deficient in reason. Gen. 2: *you shall be under the power of your husband*. Again, he excludes those things which do not belong to them, saying *but to teach*, etc. And there are two things, namely, that they not teach. But against this, Proverbs, last chapter: *his mother taught him*, etc. I answer. It must be said that teaching is of one kind public, and this does not belong to a woman, and therefore he says *in the Church*; of another kind private, and by this a mother instructs her son. But against this, Judges 5: Deborah instructed the people of Israel. I answer. That instruction was through the spirit of prophecy, and the grace of the Holy Spirit does not distinguish between man and woman; yet she did not preach publicly, but by the instinct of the Holy Spirit gave counsel. Second, dominion over a man is forbidden to them. Ecclesiasticus 25:30: *if a woman has the primacy, she is contrary to her husband*. And the Philosopher says that the rule of women is the corruption of a household, as of tyrants in a kingdom. And thus he forbids two things against the two that belong to them, but he repeats the first, namely *but to be in silence*. Then, when he says *For Adam*, he assigns the reason for what he had said, and first from the order of creation; second from the order of guilt, at the words *and Adam was not seduced*. Concerning the first, it must be known that in the order of things the perfect and the imperfect are ordered in different ways: for in one and the same thing the imperfect precedes in time, and the perfect precedes in nature, because nature tends toward the perfect; but in different things the perfect is prior both in time and in nature, because nature always begins from what is perfect. And this order is at work here, because man is perfect in human nature, woman is a defective male. Hence Adam was formed first. Gen. 2:7: *God formed man from the slime of the earth*; secondarily woman, as a certain imperfect thing originated from the perfect, namely from a rib. 1 Cor. 11:8: *for man is not from woman, but woman is from man*. And hence it is that man is not said to have been made for the sake of woman, but to the likeness of God. Gen. 1:26: *let us make man to our image and likeness*. But woman was made for the sake of man; therefore man ought to preside. Likewise on the part of guilt. For the order of generation and of corruption is contrary, because what is first in generation is last in corruption. But sin is a corruption of nature, and therefore generation begins first from Adam, but corruption from the woman. Hence he says *Adam was not seduced*, namely first, because he was stronger, but the tempter began from the weaker, so that the stronger might more easily be seduced. Here he alludes to the words of Adam, Gen. 3:12. For when the Lord reproved Adam, he said: *the woman whom you gave me as a companion, she gave to me*, etc. And therefore he says *Adam was not seduced, but the woman*. But seduction is twofold: namely in the universal, and in the particular object of choice, which is ignorance of choice. Whoever therefore sins is seduced by ignorance of choice in the particular object of choice. But the woman was seduced by ignorance in the universal, namely when she believed what the serpent said; but the man did not believe this, but was deceived in the particular, namely that he ought to indulge his wife's wish, and that he ought to eat with her, and, being unpracticed in the divine severity, he believed that it would easily be forgiven him. But against this: ignorance is the punishment of sin, therefore punishment preceded guilt. I answer. It must be said that it did not precede, because immediately at the words of the serpent she was elated, because someone else was concerned for her, and from that elation she was seduced; hence elation preceded. Then, when he says *yet she shall be saved*, he answers a certain tacit question; for someone might say that if woman is not for the sake of man, and from her is the beginning of sin, then she is harmful to man; but if something is not for the sake of another, but is harmful to it, it ought to be removed; therefore woman ought not to be saved. It must therefore be said that salvation is twofold: namely temporal, and this is common even to brute animals; the other is eternal, and this is proper to human beings. Isaiah 51:8: *but my salvation shall be forever*. But woman has not lost either salvation. Not the temporal, for she is not thereby deprived of the female sex on account of the generation of offspring. Nor the eternal, because according to the soul she is capable of grace and glory. And therefore, as to the first, it is said *she shall be saved*, that is, she shall not be uprooted, and this through the bearing of children, to which she is ordained by God. As to the second, he says *if she continues*. But because *if* implies a cause, is it then the case that she who has not continued will not be saved, since the Apostle says that a woman does better if she does not marry? I answer. In one way the expression can be figurative, and thus by *man* the higher reason is understood, the lower reason is the woman, good works are the children of the lower reason, and the charity which she conceives through the man, and by these she shall be saved. The other is a literal exposition, such that the word *through* does not signify a cause, but an opposition. And the sense is: the woman shall be saved, even if she proceeds by way of childbearing, that is, if she marries and is not a virgin. And then the word *through* denotes an increase of salvation, as though through the bearing of children for the worship of God she shall be saved the more. Ecclesiasticus 7:25: *have you children? Instruct them, and bow them down from their childhood*. As to attaining eternal salvation, he sets down three things. First, something with regard to the intellect; second, with regard to the affections; third, with regard to the exterior act. In the intellect is faith, through which the intellect is subjected to Christ; hence he says *in faith*. Heb. 11:6: *without faith it is impossible to please God*. And because faith is worth nothing without love, therefore as to the affections he immediately adds, saying *and love*. 1 Cor. 13:2: *if I have all faith, so that I could move mountains, but have not charity, I am nothing*, etc. But as to the exterior, he sets down two things against wantonness, which consists in two things, namely in lust; and as to this he says *in sanctification*, that is, in chastity. 1 Thess. 4:3: *this is the will of God, your sanctification*, etc. Likewise in drunkenness, against which he says *with sobriety*. Titus 2:12: *that we should live soberly, and godly, and justly in this world*.”

“Notwithstanding she shall be saved,.... Not Eve, though no doubt she is saved; since she had a sense of her sin, and shame for it, a revelation of the Messiah to her, and faith in him; see Gen 3:7. But rather any woman, particularly such as profess godliness, who shall be saved in childbearing; which is to be understood not of a temporal salvation, or being saved through childbearing, through the perilous time, and be delivered out of it; for though this is generally the case, yet not always, nor always the case of good women. Rachel died in childbed: the Jews say (t), for three transgressions women die in childbearing; because they do not take care of their menstrues, and of the cake of the firstfruits, and of lighting the lamp (when the sabbath approaches). But spiritual and eternal salvation is here meant; not that bearing children is the cause, condition, or means of salvation; for as this is not God's way of salvation, so it confines the salvation of women to childbearing ones; and which must give an uneasy reflection to maidens, and women that never bore any; but rather the meaning is, that good women shall be saved, notwithstanding their bearing and bringing forth children in pain and sorrow, according to the original curse, in Gen 3:16. And so the words administer some comfort to women, in their present situation of subjection and sorrow; though they may be rendered impersonally thus, "notwithstanding there is salvation through the birth of a son": and the sense is, that notwithstanding the fall of man by the means of the woman, yet there is salvation for both men and women, through the birth of Immanuel, the child born, and Son given; at whose birth, the angels sung peace on earth, good will to men; through the true Messiah, the deed of the woman, through the incarnate Saviour, who was made of a woman, there is salvation for lost sinners: he was born of a woman, and came into the world in order to obtain salvation for them; and he has effected it, and it is in him, for all such who apply to him for it; and with it all true believers, men and women, shall be saved through him, if they continue in faith and charity, and holiness, with sobriety. The Vulgate Latin version reads in the singular, "if she continues", &c. but the sense is the same; for the "she", or woman, is to be taken in a collective sense, as it is in the context, for many women; even for such as profess faith and godliness. The Syriac and Ethiopic versions render the words, "she shall be saved by her children", if they continue, &c. i.e. she shall be saved by bearing of children, and bringing of them up in a religious way; if they, the children, continue as they were brought up; which is a very strange rendering of the words, and is as strange an interpretation of them; and yet is what many have given into, but needs no confutation. The meaning of the words is, that there is salvation through the incarnate Messiah, for all sorts of persons; for all men and women who believe in him, with that faith which works by love, and shows itself in holiness and sobriety; provided that they continue herein. For there are some that profess these things, that have only a temporary faith, and feigned love, and not true holiness; and these fall away, and are not saved; but such who have these graces in truth, as they do, and shall continue in them, so they shall certainly be saved. (t) Misn. Sabbat, c. 2. sect. 6. Next: 1 Timothy Chapter 3”

“Adam was not deceived - It does not appear that Satan attempted the man; the woman said: The serpent beguiled me, and I did eat. Adam received the fruit from the hand of his wife; he knew he was transgressing, he was not deceived; however, she led the way, and in consequence of this she was subjected to the domination of her husband: Thy desire shall be to thy husband, and he shall rule over thee; Gen 3:16. There is a Greek verse, but it is not English law, that speaks a language nearly similar to that above: - Γυναικι δ' αρχειν ου διδωσιν ἡ φυσις. For nature suffers not a woman's rule. God has not only rendered her unfit for it, but he has subjected her, expressly, to the government of the man.”

“Adam was not deceived--as Eve was deceived by the serpent; but was persuaded by his wife. Gen 3:17, "hearkened unto . . . voice of . . . wife." But in Gen 3:13, Eve says, "The serpent beguiled me." Being more easily deceived, she more easily deceives [BENGEL], (Co2 11:3). Last in being, she was first in sin--indeed, she alone was deceived. The subtle serpent knew that she was "the weaker vessel" (Pe1 3:7). He therefore tempted her, not Adam. She yielded to the temptations of sense and the deceits of Satan; he, to conjugal love. Hence, in the order of God's judicial sentence, the serpent, the prime offender, stands first; the woman, who was deceived, next; and the man, persuaded by his wife, last (Gen 3:14-19). In Rom 5:12, Adam is represented as the first transgressor; but there no reference is made to Eve, and Adam is regarded as the head of the sinning race. Hence, as here, Ti1 2:11, in Gen 3:16, woman's "subjection" is represented as the consequence of her being deceived. being deceived--The oldest manuscripts read the compound Greek verb for the simple, "Having been seduced by deceit": implying how completely Satan succeeded in deceiving her. was in the transgression--Greek, "came to be in the transgression": became involved in the existing state of transgression, literally, "the going beyond a command"; breach of a positive precept (Rom 4:15).”